Showing posts with label bsnl jto old papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label bsnl jto old papers. Show all posts

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BSNL JTO PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER  SECTION-I

1.For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is –
a). Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.

b) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the   volume between the plates.
c) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d) The poynting vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.


2.The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to –
a.) Polarization
b.) Conductivity
c.) Structural homogeneties
d)  Ionization


3.Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon –
a.) Boron
b) Indium
c) Germanium
d Antimony


4.Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess –
a) High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c)  High thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.


5.The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the –
a) infrared region
b) ultraviolet region
c) visible region
d) x-ray region


6.For an insulating material,dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively –
a) high and high
b) low and high
c.) high and low
d.) low and low


7.In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress –
a.)  odd harmonics
b.)  even harmonics
c.)  fundamental component
d.)  dc component 


8.The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on –
a). mutual inductance between two coils only
b). self inductances of the two coils only
c). mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d.)  none


9.Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of –
a.) paper
b.)  rubber
c.) ceramic
d.) Mylar


10.In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is –
a.) always positive
b.) always negative
c.) sometime positive, sometime negative
d.) numerically less than its kinetic energy


11.A  DE  MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a.) channel
b.)  gate
c.)  P-N junctions
d.)  substrate


12.The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a.)  it is more sensitive
b.)  it is more linear
c.)  it is less temperature dependent
d.)  it's cost is low


13.Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by –
a.)  thermally generated electrons and holes
b.)  diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c.)  migration of minority carriers across the junction
d.)  flow of drift current


14.When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter – 
a.) recombine with holes in the base
b.) recombine in the emitter itself
c.) pass through the base to the collector
d.)  are stopped by the junction barrier


15.The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is –
a.) 0.5
b.)  0
c.) 1.0
d.) 0.8


16.A UJT can –
a.) be triggered by any one of it's three terminals
b.) not be triggered
c.) be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d.) be triggered by all of its terminals only


17.An SCR can only be turned off via it's –
a.) cathode
b.) anode
c.) gates
d) none 


18.Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to –
a.)  increase the recombination rate
b.) reduce the recombination rate
c.) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d.)  make silicon semi-metal


19.With n nodes and b branches a network will have –
a.) (b + n) links
b.)  b – n + 1 links
c.) b – n – 1 links
d.) b + n + 1 links


20.When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be -
a.) 7
b.) 9
c.) 10
d.) 45


21.A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give –
a.) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power
b.) an output power which is one – half of the input power
c.) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d.) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power


22.While transporting a sensitive galvanometer –
a.) the terminals are kept shorted
b.) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c.)  the terminals are kept open circuited
d.) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals


23.A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2 ?
1. R1 = 147ohm                        2. R1 = 153
ohm
3. R2 = 1.5
ohm                         4. R2 = 3750ohm
a..) 1 and 3
b.) 1 and 4
c.) 2 and 3
d..)2 and 4


24.For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is –
a.) 49w
b.) 60w
c..) 70w
d..) 140w


25.When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is –
a..) 2
b..) 3
c..)  4
d..) 5


26.Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22                             2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21                          4. BC – AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if –
a..) 1 and 2 are correct
b.) 2 and 3 are correct
c.) 3 and 4 are correct
d.). 4 alone is correct


27.As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are –
a.)  will become half
b.)  will remain uncha
c.). will become double
 
d.) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known

28.If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-  
a) Triangular 
b) Trapezoidal 
c)) Sinusoidal 
d) Rectangular 
29.One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -  
a) It is dimensionless 
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum 
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one  
d) None



30.When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be–
a) R/2 ohms
b) R ohms
c) 2R ohms
d) 4R ohms.  31.In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a.) TE111 and TM111
b). TE011 and TM011
c). TE022 and TM111
d) TE111 and TM011          
32.When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly
a) 0.19
b) 0.81
c) 0.97
d) 1.19        
33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a) Zero
b) IF
c)  4pF
d) OF      
34.When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a) d = 1.5 cm
b) d is less then 1.5 cm
c)  d is greater than 1.5 cm
d) d = 3cm       
35.When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a) 0.89159 %
b) 8.9159 %
c) 89.159 %
d)891.59 %  
36.In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a) 5 KHz
b) 15 KHz
c) 75 KHz
d) 200 KHz  
37.Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is –
a) sinusoidal
b) square
c) rectangular
d)  triangular  
38.Strain gauge is –
a) not a transducer
b) an active transducer
c) not an electronic instrument
d) none
39.A high Q coil has –
a) large band width
b) high losses
c) low losses
d) flat response  
40.In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is –
a) 1.810%
b) 0.181%
c) 18.10%
d) 0.0018%  
41.The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for –
a) High frequency, large signal operation
b.)  High frequency, small signal operation
c.) Low frequency, small signal operation
d) Low frequency, large signal operation  
42.A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on –
a.) Values of input in the past and in the future
b) Values of input at that time and in the past
c) Values of input at that time and in the future
d) None  
43.A iron cored choke is a –
a) Linear and active device
b) Non linear and passive device
c) Active device only
d) Linear device only  
44.Poynting vector wattmeter uses –
a) Seebeck effect
b) Ferranti effect
c)  Induction effect
d) Hall effect  
45.Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick – up
c)  Photo voltaic cell
d) LCD  
46.The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is –
a) Converter system
b)  Inverter
c) Chopper
d) Thyristor  
47.It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode –
a) SCR
b) PCR
c) VCR
d) DCR  
48.An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a –
a) constant voltage source
b) constant current source
c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d) resistance  
49.Anode current in an thyristor is made up of –
a) ellectrons only
b)  electrons or holes
c)  electrons and holes
d)  holes only  
50.For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively –
a)  ferrite : 20 : 1
b) laminated iron : 1 : 1
c)  ferrite : 1 : 1
d) powdered iron : 1 : 1
-+-

Section-III(General knowledge)

All Questions carry 1 mark each
 
1. Who was the first woman to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Sarojini Naidu    
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Sonia Gandhi     
(D) Annie Besant
 2. Which political leader delivered the famous I have a dream speech?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru 
(B) Martin Luther King
(C) Winston Churchill
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
 3. Who established the organization Khudai Khidmatgar?
(A) Hyder Ali 
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
 4. Analgesics are drugs used to prevent or relieve
(A) aches and pain
(B) hormone deficiency
(C) fever and high body temperature 
(D) stress and anxiety 
 5. The abbreviation CD stands for
(A) Circular Disc
(B) Compact Disc
(C) Computer Device 
(D) Code-Demodulator
 6. Chandrayaan-I, India's first mission to the moon, has 11 scientific instruments that are being released on the surface of the moon. These instruments are together known as
(A) Moon Impact Probes 
(B) Scientific Payloads
(C) Terrain Mapping Cameras 
(D) Spectrometers
7. The World Wide Web was invented by
(A) Tim Berners-Lee 
(B) Sabeer Bhatia
(C) Narayanmurthy
(D) Charles Babbage
8. How many diagonals does a quadrilateral have?
(A) one 
(B) two 
(C) four 
(D) eight
 9. ISO 14000 standards deal with
(A) Quality management 
(B) Human resource management
(C) Production management 
(D) Environmental management
 10. Which Indian politician's autobiography is titled The Story of My Life?
(A) Morarji Desai 
(B) Lal Krishna Advani
(C) Mahatma Gandhi 
(D) Atal Behari Vajpayee
 11. The phrase through thick and thin means
(A) big and small
(B) large object
(C) thin and fat 
(D) under all conditions
12. Picturesque means
(A) photogenic 
(B) simple
(C) stimulating
(D) ugly
13. Diligent means 
(A) intelligent
(B) energetic 
(C) modest 
(D)industrious 
14. The opposite of miserly is
(A) spendthrift 
(B) generous 
(C) liberal 
(D) charitable
15. The opposite of ingratitude is
(A) sympathy 
(B) reward 
(C) thankfulness 
(D) stimulation 
16. The appropriate missing word in the blank space in the sentence I prefer coffee _____ tea.
(A) than 
(B) over 
(C) for 
(D) to
17. The appropriate missing word in the blank space in the sentence Many relatives attended _____him during his illness.
(A) of
(B) on 
(C) for 
(D) with
18. The article required before the word one-eyed in the sentence There was ______ one-eyed beggar by the multiplex.is
(A) the
(B) a 
C) an 
(D) nil
19. The article required before the word University in the sentence She met Professor Shah at ______ University. is
(A) A    
(B) an 
(C) the 
(D) nil
 20. Which one is the correct sentence amongst the following sentences?
(A) Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, were assembled on the lawns.
(B) Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, are assembled on the lawns.
(C) Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, assembled on the lawns.
(D) Mr. Gupta, accompanied by his friends, have assembled on the lawns.


Section-II
                           Question Number 1-20 carry 1 mark each
1.     As per USCS classification, the diameter of silt size particle is less than
(A)  0.075 mm                    (B) 0.002 mm                        
(C) 0.02 mm                     (D) 0.75 mm
2.     Specific volume of soil is 1.9. Its porosity is
(A)  0.9                                 (B) 0.47                                   
 (C) 2.11                               (D) 1
3.  In a compaction test, MDD stands for maximum dry density and OMC for optimum moisture content. As compaction energy increases,
(A)  Both MDD and OMC increases
(B)   MDD decreases and OMC increases
(C) MDD increases and OMC decreases
(D)  No change in MDD and OMC
4.   Let Ï„ represent shear strength, c cohesion, σ effective normal stress and φ angle of internal friction, then according to Coulomb s shear strength model
(A)  Ï„ = σ + c tan φ                                      (C) σ= c + Ï„ tan φ
(B)   σ = Ï„ + c tan φ                                      (D) Ï„ = c + σ tan φ 
5.   The bearing capacity of soil supporting a footing of size 3 m X 3 m will not be affected by the presence of water table located at a minimum depth below the base of footing by
(A)  1.0 m                                 (B) 1.5 m                                  
(C) 3.0 m                          (D) 6.0 m
6.   Parallax error in levelling is due to a condition where
(A)  Image formed by objective is in the plane of cross hair
(B)   Image formed by objective is not in the plane of cross hair
(C) Image formed by eyepiece is in the plane of cross hair
(D)  Image formed by eyepiece is not in the plane of cross hair
7.   Sag correction is applicable while using
(A)  Dumpy level on a sloping ground                                  
(B)   Plane table by two point problem  
(C) Tape for linear measurement                            
(D) Theodolite for measuring height
8.   Which of the following tests is not conducted on bituminous material?
(A)  Penetration test                                    (C) Vebe test
(B)   Viscosity test                                        (D) Softening point test
9.  What is the value of radius of relative stiffness for a 250 mm thick cement concrete slab resting on a subgrade? Given, Poissons ratio of concrete = 0.15, modulus of elasticity of concrete = 26950 N/mm2 and modulus of subgrade reaction equal to 0.064 N/mm3.
(A)  2996 mm                       (B) 675 mm                         
(C) 1309 mm                        (D) 865 mm
10. Fish plates are used
(A)  In rail joints for maintaining the continuity of rails
(B)   For joining cast iron sleepers with rails
(C) For joining pre-stressed concrete sleepers with rails
(D)  To divert train from one track to another
11. To avoid tension on the bottom of a gravity dam of bottom width b, the eccentricity must be less than
 (A)  b /2                                  (B) b /3                                
 (C) 2b /3                                (D) b /6
12. A channel with a mild slope is followed by a steep bottom slope. The profile of the gradually varied flow will be
 (A)  M1-S2                           (B) M2-S2                            
 (C) M1-S1                             (D) M2-S1 
13. Identify the TRUE statement from the following: 
(A)  A reciprocating pump will be called double acting reciprocating pump if it has two cylinders.
(B)   A reciprocating pump will be called double acting reciprocating pump if it has two pistons.
(C) In case of double acting reciprocating pump, the liquid is in contact with one side of the piston.
(D)  In case of double acting reciprocating pump, the liquid is in contact with both sides of the piston.
14. Flood routing is a procedure to determine
(A)  time and magnitude of flow at a point on a water course from known upstream hydrograph.
(B)   the discharge over the spillway and through sluice gate.
(C) reservoir storage.
(D)  the head available at the power plant.
15. Ideal fluids are those fluids which
(A)  have no viscosity                                          (B) have surface tension
(B)   have viscosity                                              (D) are compressible
16. Hygroscopic water is a film water chemically bound to soil particles by adhesive force and
(A)  is available to plants
(B)   is not available to plants
(C) can be drained out by gravity
(D)  is capable of movement by capillary force
17. Modern turbidimeters, working on the principle of scattering of light, are known as
(A)  Optimeters                                                  (C) Nephelometers
(B)   Tintometers                                                (D) pH meter
18. Pollution by depletion of ozone layer, threatening the environment, is caused due to the reaction of ozone with
(A)  Carbon monoxide                                        (C) Sulfur dioxide
(B)   Chlorofluorocarbon(CFC)                          (D) Oxygen
19. The water to be used for boilers should preferably be
                (A)  Hard                               (B) Potable                              
               (C) Corrosive                        (D) Soft
                      Question Number 21-50 carry 2 marks each
21. A soil sample of specific gravity 2.7 has void ratio of 0.9. The gravimetric water content of the sample is 25%. Its bulk unit weight is
(A)  13.9 kN/m3                       (B) 17.4 kN/m3              
 (C) 18.6 kN/m3                      (D) 8.8KN/m3
22. A bulk weight of 200 g of silty soil of specific gravity 2.64 is packed in a volume of 115 cc. Oven dried weight of soil is 170 g. The saturation of the sample is
 (A)  25%                                  (B) 30%                              
 (C) 75%                                   (D) 60%
23. For a falling head permeability test, there is a drop in head from 64 cm to 54 cm in 8 minutes. The area of stand pipe is 1 cm2 and area of soil sample is 20 cm2. Length of soil sample is 10 cm. The permeability of the soil sample is
(A)  1.8 X 10-4 cm/s                                          (C) 4.1 X 10-1 cm/s
(B)   1.4 X 10-1 cm/s                                         (D) 1.8 X 10-3 cm/s
24. A 30 cm diameter concrete pile is driven into a homogenous clay deposit with cohesion equal to 40 kN/m2 and adhesion factor is equal to 0.7. Embedded length of the pile is 115 kN. Assume Nc equal to 9 and there is both end resistance. The factor of safety is
(A)  2.3                                (B) 0.4                                
 (C) 1.2                                (D) 2.5
25. Sea bed is 200 m deep, which consist of sand with saturated unit weight of 19.81 kN/m3. Effective stress at 5 m below sea bed is
(A)  2061 kN/m2                (B) 50 kN/m2                       
(C) 99 kN/m2                    (D) 2012 kN/m2
26. Coefficient of consolidation for a clay layer is given as 6 X 10-7 m2/minute. The time factor for 90% degree of consolidation is 0.848. Liquid limit of clay is 50%. The saturated clay layer is 3 m thick with double drainage condition. The time required for 90% consolidation is
(A)  5.3 X 104 hours                                  (C) 2.65 X 104 hours
(B)   2.12 X 105 hours                                (D) 1.06 X 105 hours
27. For an unconsolidated undrained (UU) test, major and minor principal stress for silty clay is 200 kN/m2  and 100 kN/m2, respectively. Shear strength parameters for this soil sample is
(A)  c = 200 kN/m2; φ = 20o                        (C) c = 50 kN/m2; φ = 0o
(B)   c = 100 kN/m2; φ = 20o                       (D) c = 200 kN/m2; φ = 10o
28. A vertical cut is made in a soil with shear strength parameters of c = 0 and φ = 12o. Coefficient of active earth pressure is 0.656. Unit weight of soil is 18 kN/m3. The active earth pressure at 4 m depth is
(A)  47 kN/m2                    (B) 3 kN/m2                        
 (C) 72 kN/m2                    (D) 110 kN/m2
29. A 10 m thick layer with unit weight of 20 kN/m3 overlies sandy deposit of 4 m thick. The piezometric head at the bottom of the clay layer is 18 m. The safe depth of excavation possible in clay layer without causing instability is
(A)  8.8 m                             (B) 6.1 m                             
 (C) 4.9 m                             (D) 1.2 m

30. The following bearings are observed in running a closed traverse by compass survey. 

 Line                                  Fore bearing                               Back bearing
  ab                                       75.5                                               254.20
  bc                                      115.20                                            296.35
  cd                                     165.35                                             345.35

Local attraction problem exists at stations:
(A)  c                                      (B) d                                   
(C) a, b                                  (D) All stations
31. A theodolite was set up at station P and angle of elevation measured to a vane 4 m above the foot of levelling staff held at Q is 9o. Horizontal distance between P and Q is 2000 m. Reduced level of instrument axis is 2650 m. Assuming negligible correction, the reduced level of staff station Q is
(A)  2654 m                         (B) 2967 m                           
(C) 2963 m                          (D) 2650 m
32. Reduced level of bottom of sunshade, a is 63.120 m. The following readings were obtained using a level:
Readings on inverted staff at a is 2.235 m
Readings on the top of peg p on the ground is 1.035 m
The height difference between a and p is
(A)  2.235 m                         (B) 1.195 m                          
 (C) 3.270 m                         (D) 1.035 m
33. The distance between two posts measured with a 20 m chain was found to be 250 m. If the chain is 10 cm too long, then the true distance between the posts is
(A)  251.25 m                       (B) 250.10 m                         
(C) 248.75 m                        (D) 249.90 m
34. The correct sequence of the anaerobic sludge digestion steps is
(A)  Acid formation, hydrolysis, methane formation
(B)   Methane formation, acid formation, hydrolysis
(C) Hydrolysis,  methane formation, acid formation
(D)  Hydrolysis,  acid formation, methane formation
35. If a sample of air is analysed at standard temperature and pressure, and is found to contain 0.3 ppm of sulphur dioxide, the equivalent SO2 concentration in g/m3 will be (Given atomic weight of S=32 g and O= 16g)
(A)  8570                               (B) 857                                  
(C) 85.7                                 (D) 0.857
36. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
                   List I                                                              List II
       (Treatment Units)                                         (Detention Time) 
a.     Grit Chamber                                                     i.  Six hours
b.     Primary Sedimentation                                    ii.  Two minutes
c.     Sludge digestion                                              iii.  Two hours
d.     Activated sludge                                              iv.  Twenty days



         Codes            a.              b.             c.              d.              
(A)         i.                ii.              iii.              iv.
(B)         ii.               iii.              iv.               i.
(C)        i.               iv.              iii.                ii.
(D)        ii.                 i.              iii.               iv.
37. A 10 min. triangular unit hydrograph has peak discharge of 100 m3/sec and time to peak is 30 min. The peak discharge and time to peak of the direct runoff hydrograph resulting from a 20 min. storm having 0.2 cm rainfall in the first 10 min. is (consider  φ-index of 1.2 cm/hr)
(A) 80 m3/sec and 40 min.                                                       
(B) 20 m3/sec and 40 min. 
(C) 20 m3/sec and 30 min.                                                           
(D) 100 m3/sec and 30 min.  
38. The velocity field can be represented by
V = (3x+py+qz)+(rx+2y+4z)ĵ+(sx+6y+tz)k
Where p, q, r, s, t are constants. If the fluid is incompressible and conserve mass, then the value of t is
(A)  5                         (B) -5                                  
(C) 3                          (D) 1
39. A channel carrying a discharge of 20 m3/sec. The average velocity of flow in the channel for f= 1 as per Laceys regime theory is
(A)  0.723 m/sec            (B) 7.23 m/sec   
                 
(C) 72.3 m/sec               (D) 0.0723 m/sec      
40. An irrigation canal has culturable command area of 28,000 hectares. The intensity of irrigation for Kharif season is 25% and for Rabi season is 60%. If the duty at its head is 700 hectares/cumec for Kharif season and 1680 hectares/cumec for Rabi season, then the discharge at the head of the canal is
(A)  2 cumec                    (B) 20 cumec                        
 (C) 10 cumec                  (D) 200 cumec
41. A volume of 2.0 X 106 m3 of groundwater was pumped out uniformly from an unconfined aquifer of 200 km2 area. If the specific yield of the aquifer is 0.005, the water table of the aquifer was lowered down by
(A)  2 m                               (B) 10 m                              
 (C) 8 m                               (D) 5 m
 43.  A rectangular channel has a width of 2 m. The channel carries a discharge of 4 m3/sec with depth of water of 1 m. At a certain section in the channel, it is proposed to construct a smooth hump. The maximum height of the hump that can be constructed without any change in the upstream depth of the channel is
(A)  0.9 m                        (B) 1.20 m                              
 (C) 0.09 m                      (D) 1.11 m
44. Head loss between section A and B of a circular pipe of diameter 100 mm is 0.40 m. The average velocity of flow is 1.26 m/sec and Darcy's frictional coefficient is 0.008. The length of the pipe between section A and B is 
(A)  154.48 m                   (B) 1.54 m                             
(C) 18.50 m                      (D) 15.45 m
45. What is the population equivalent of a city if the average sewage from the city is 95 X 106 l/day, and the average 5 day BOD is 300 mg/l? Assume that per capita BOD5 of sewage per day = 0.08 kg.
(A)  2,280                         (B) 28,500                              
(C) 71,250                       (D) 3,56,250
46. The mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) concentration in the aeration tank of activated sludge process is 4000 mg/l. If one litre of sample settled in 30 minutes and the measuring cylinder showed a sludge volume of 200 ml, then the sludge volume index would be nearly
(A)  200                            (B) 150                                    
 (C) 100                            (D) 50
47. If the population of a city is 2 lakhs, and average water consumption is 200 lpcd, then the capacity of the pipe mains should be
(A)  108 Mld                   (B) 72 Mld                               
(C) 60 Mld                       (D) 40 Mld
48. For a water sample having a total hardness of 200 mg/l as CaCO3, and alkalinity of 250 mg/l as CaCO3, the carbonate hardness and non-carbonate hardness are, respectively
(A) 50 mg/l and 200 mg/l of CaCO3                                
(B) 200 mg/l and 50 mg/l of CaCO3  
(C) 0 mg/l and 200 mg/l of CaCO3  
      (D) 200 mg/l and 0 mg/l of CaCO3  
49. A water having pH = 9 will have OH- concentration equal to
(A)  109 mol/l                 (B) 10-9 mol/l                         
(C) 10-5mol/l                  (D) 105
50. The chlorine demand of a water sample was found to be 0.2 mg/l. The amount of bleaching powder containing 30% available chlorine to be added to treat one litre of such a water sample is
                            (A) 0.67 mg                  (B) 0.06 mg                            
                     (C) 1.33 mg                  (D) 0.14 mg  

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