Section-II
Question Number 1-20 carry 1 mark each
1. As per USCS classification, the diameter of silt size particle is less than
(A) 0.075 mm (B) 0.002 mm
(C) 0.02 mm (D) 0.75 mm
2. Specific volume of soil is 1.9. Its porosity is
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.47
(C) 2.11 (D) 1
3. In a compaction test, MDD stands for maximum dry density and OMC for optimum moisture content. As compaction energy increases,
(A) Both MDD and OMC increases
(B) MDD decreases and OMC increases
(C) MDD increases and OMC decreases
(D) No change in MDD and OMC
4. Let τ represent shear strength, c cohesion, σ effective normal stress and φ angle of internal friction, then according to Coulomb s shear strength model
(A) τ = σ + c tan φ (C) σ= c + τ tan φ
(B) σ = τ + c tan φ (D) τ = c + σ tan φ
5. The bearing capacity of soil supporting a footing of size 3 m X 3 m will not be affected by the presence of water table located at a minimum depth below the base of footing by
(A) 1.0 m (B) 1.5 m
(C) 3.0 m (D) 6.0 m
6. Parallax error in levelling is due to a condition where
(A) Image formed by objective is in the plane of cross hair
(B) Image formed by objective is not in the plane of cross hair
(C) Image formed by eyepiece is in the plane of cross hair
(D) Image formed by eyepiece is not in the plane of cross hair
7. Sag correction is applicable while using
(A) Dumpy level on a sloping ground
(B) Plane table by two point problem
(C) Tape for linear measurement
(D) Theodolite for measuring height
8. Which of the following tests is not conducted on bituminous material?
(A) Penetration test (C) Vebe test
(B) Viscosity test (D) Softening point test
9. What is the value of radius of relative stiffness for a 250 mm thick cement concrete slab resting on a subgrade? Given, Poissons ratio of concrete = 0.15, modulus of elasticity of concrete = 26950 N/mm2 and modulus of subgrade reaction equal to 0.064 N/mm3.
(A) 2996 mm (B) 675 mm
(C) 1309 mm (D) 865 mm
10. Fish plates are used
(A) In rail joints for maintaining the continuity of rails
(B) For joining cast iron sleepers with rails
(C) For joining pre-stressed concrete sleepers with rails
(D) To divert train from one track to another
11. To avoid tension on the bottom of a gravity dam of bottom width b, the eccentricity must be less than
(A) b /2 (B) b /3
(C) 2b /3 (D) b /6
12. A channel with a mild slope is followed by a steep bottom slope. The profile of the gradually varied flow will be
(A) M1-S2 (B) M2-S2
(C) M1-S1 (D) M2-S1
13. Identify the TRUE statement from the following:
(A) A reciprocating pump will be called double acting reciprocating pump if it has two cylinders.
(B) A reciprocating pump will be called double acting reciprocating pump if it has two pistons.
(C) In case of double acting reciprocating pump, the liquid is in contact with one side of the piston.
(D) In case of double acting reciprocating pump, the liquid is in contact with both sides of the piston.
14. Flood routing is a procedure to determine
(A) time and magnitude of flow at a point on a water course from known upstream hydrograph.
(B) the discharge over the spillway and through sluice gate.
(C) reservoir storage.
(D) the head available at the power plant.
15. Ideal fluids are those fluids which
(A) have no viscosity (B) have surface tension
(B) have viscosity (D) are compressible
16. Hygroscopic water is a film water chemically bound to soil particles by adhesive force and
(A) is available to plants
(B) is not available to plants
(C) can be drained out by gravity
(D) is capable of movement by capillary force
17. Modern turbidimeters, working on the principle of scattering of light, are known as
(A) Optimeters (C) Nephelometers
(B) Tintometers (D) pH meter
18. Pollution by depletion of ozone layer, threatening the environment, is caused due to the reaction of ozone with
(A) Carbon monoxide (C) Sulfur dioxide
(B) Chlorofluorocarbon(CFC) (D) Oxygen
19. The water to be used for boilers should preferably be
(A) Hard (B) Potable
(C) Corrosive (D) Soft
Question Number 21-50 carry 2 marks each
21. A soil sample of specific gravity 2.7 has void ratio of 0.9. The gravimetric water content of the sample is 25%. Its bulk unit weight is
(A) 13.9 kN/m3 (B) 17.4 kN/m3
(C) 18.6 kN/m3 (D) 8.8KN/m3
22. A bulk weight of 200 g of silty soil of specific gravity 2.64 is packed in a volume of 115 cc. Oven dried weight of soil is 170 g. The saturation of the sample is
(A) 25% (B) 30%
(C) 75% (D) 60%
23. For a falling head permeability test, there is a drop in head from 64 cm to 54 cm in 8 minutes. The area of stand pipe is 1 cm2 and area of soil sample is 20 cm2. Length of soil sample is 10 cm. The permeability of the soil sample is
(A) 1.8 X 10-4 cm/s (C) 4.1 X 10-1 cm/s
(B) 1.4 X 10-1 cm/s (D) 1.8 X 10-3 cm/s
24. A 30 cm diameter concrete pile is driven into a homogenous clay deposit with cohesion equal to 40 kN/m2 and adhesion factor is equal to 0.7. Embedded length of the pile is 115 kN. Assume Nc equal to 9 and there is both end resistance. The factor of safety is
(A) 2.3 (B) 0.4
(C) 1.2 (D) 2.5
25. Sea bed is 200 m deep, which consist of sand with saturated unit weight of 19.81 kN/m3. Effective stress at 5 m below sea bed is
(A) 2061 kN/m2 (B) 50 kN/m2
(C) 99 kN/m2 (D) 2012 kN/m2
26. Coefficient of consolidation for a clay layer is given as 6 X 10-7 m2/minute. The time factor for 90% degree of consolidation is 0.848. Liquid limit of clay is 50%. The saturated clay layer is 3 m thick with double drainage condition. The time required for 90% consolidation is
(A) 5.3 X 104 hours (C) 2.65 X 104 hours
(B) 2.12 X 105 hours (D) 1.06 X 105 hours
27. For an unconsolidated undrained (UU) test, major and minor principal stress for silty clay is 200 kN/m2 and 100 kN/m2, respectively. Shear strength parameters for this soil sample is
(A) c = 200 kN/m2; φ = 20o (C) c = 50 kN/m2; φ = 0o
(B) c = 100 kN/m2; φ = 20o (D) c = 200 kN/m2; φ = 10o
28. A vertical cut is made in a soil with shear strength parameters of c �= 0 and φ = 12o. Coefficient of active earth pressure is 0.656. Unit weight of soil is 18 kN/m3. The active earth pressure at 4 m depth is
(A) 47 kN/m2 (B) 3 kN/m2
(C) 72 kN/m2 (D) 110 kN/m2
29. A 10 m thick layer with unit weight of 20 kN/m3 overlies sandy deposit of 4 m thick. The piezometric head at the bottom of the clay layer is 18 m. The safe depth of excavation possible in clay layer without causing instability is
(A) 8.8 m (B) 6.1 m
(C) 4.9 m (D) 1.2 m
30. The following bearings are observed in running a closed traverse by compass survey.
Line Fore bearing Back bearing
ab 75.5 254.20
bc 115.20 296.35
cd 165.35 345.35
Local attraction problem exists at stations:
(A) c (B) d
(C) a, b (D) All stations
31. A theodolite was set up at station P and angle of elevation measured to a vane 4 m above the foot of levelling staff held at Q is 9o. Horizontal distance between P and Q is 2000 m. Reduced level of instrument axis is 2650 m. Assuming negligible correction, the reduced level of staff station Q is
(A) 2654 m (B) 2967 m
(C) 2963 m (D) 2650 m
32. Reduced level of bottom of sunshade, a is 63.120 m. The following readings were obtained using a level:
Readings on inverted staff at a is 2.235 m
Readings on the top of peg p on the ground is 1.035 m
The height difference between a and p is
(A) 2.235 m (B) 1.195 m
(C) 3.270 m (D) 1.035 m
33. The distance between two posts measured with a 20 m chain was found to be 250 m. If the chain is 10 cm too long, then the true distance between the posts is
(A) 251.25 m (B) 250.10 m
(C) 248.75 m (D) 249.90 m
34. The correct sequence of the anaerobic sludge digestion steps is
(A) Acid formation, hydrolysis, methane formation
(B) Methane formation, acid formation, hydrolysis
(C) Hydrolysis, methane formation, acid formation
(D) Hydrolysis, acid formation, methane formation
35. If a sample of air is analysed at standard temperature and pressure, and is found to contain 0.3 ppm of sulphur dioxide, the equivalent SO2 concentration in g/m3 will be (Given atomic weight of S=32 g and O= 16g)
(A) 8570 (B) 857
(C) 85.7 (D) 0.857
36. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Treatment Units) (Detention Time)
a. Grit Chamber i. Six hours
a. Grit Chamber i. Six hours
b. Primary Sedimentation ii. Two minutes
c. Sludge digestion iii. Two hours
d. Activated sludge iv. Twenty days
43. A rectangular channel has a width of 2 m. The channel carries a discharge of 4 m3/sec with depth of water of 1 m. At a certain section in the channel, it is proposed to construct a smooth hump. The maximum height of the hump that can be constructed without any change in the upstream depth of the channel is
Codes a. b. c. d.
(A) i. ii. iii. iv.
(B) ii. iii. iv. i.
(C) i. iv. iii. ii.
(D) ii. i. iii. iv.
37. A 10 min. triangular unit hydrograph has peak discharge of 100 m3/sec and time to peak is 30 min. The peak discharge and time to peak of the direct runoff hydrograph resulting from a 20 min. storm having 0.2 cm rainfall in the first 10 min. is (consider φ-index of 1.2 cm/hr)
(A) 80 m3/sec and 40 min.
(B) 20 m3/sec and 40 min.
(C) 20 m3/sec and 30 min.
(D) 100 m3/sec and 30 min.
38. The velocity field can be represented by
V = (3x+py+qz)+(rx+2y+4z)ĵ+(sx+6y+tz)k
Where p, q, r, s, t are constants. If the fluid is incompressible and conserve mass, then the value of t is
(A) 5 (B) -5
(C) 3 (D) 1
39. A channel carrying a discharge of 20 m3/sec. The average velocity of flow in the channel for f= 1 as per Laceys regime theory is
(A) 0.723 m/sec (B) 7.23 m/sec
(C) 72.3 m/sec (D) 0.0723 m/sec
(C) 72.3 m/sec (D) 0.0723 m/sec
40. An irrigation canal has culturable command area of 28,000 hectares. The intensity of irrigation for Kharif season is 25% and for Rabi season is 60%. If the duty at its head is 700 hectares/cumec for Kharif season and 1680 hectares/cumec for Rabi season, then the discharge at the head of the canal is
(A) 2 cumec (B) 20 cumec
(C) 10 cumec (D) 200 cumec
41. A volume of 2.0 X 106 m3 of groundwater was pumped out uniformly from an unconfined aquifer of 200 km2 area. If the specific yield of the aquifer is 0.005, the water table of the aquifer was lowered down by
(A) 2 m (B) 10 m
(C) 8 m (D) 5 m
(A) 0.9 m (B) 1.20 m
(C) 0.09 m (D) 1.11 m
44. Head loss between section A and B of a circular pipe of diameter 100 mm is 0.40 m. The average velocity of flow is 1.26 m/sec and Darcy's frictional coefficient is 0.008. The length of the pipe between section A and B is
(A) 154.48 m (B) 1.54 m
(C) 18.50 m (D) 15.45 m
45. What is the population equivalent of a city if the average sewage from the city is 95 X 106 l/day, and the average 5 day BOD is 300 mg/l? Assume that per capita BOD5 of sewage per day = 0.08 kg.
(A) 2,280 (B) 28,500
(C) 71,250 (D) 3,56,250
46. The mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) concentration in the aeration tank of activated sludge process is 4000 mg/l. If one litre of sample settled in 30 minutes and the measuring cylinder showed a sludge volume of 200 ml, then the sludge volume index would be nearly
(A) 200 (B) 150
(C) 100 (D) 50
47. If the population of a city is 2 lakhs, and average water consumption is 200 lpcd, then the capacity of the pipe mains should be
(A) 108 Mld (B) 72 Mld
(C) 60 Mld (D) 40 Mld
48. For a water sample having a total hardness of 200 mg/l as CaCO3, and alkalinity of 250 mg/l as CaCO3, the carbonate hardness and non-carbonate hardness are, respectively
(A) 50 mg/l and 200 mg/l of CaCO3
(B) 200 mg/l and 50 mg/l of CaCO3
(C) 0 mg/l and 200 mg/l of CaCO3
(D) 200 mg/l and 0 mg/l of CaCO3
49. A water having pH = 9 will have OH- concentration equal to
(A) 109 mol/l (B) 10-9 mol/l
(C) 10-5mol/l (D) 105
50. The chlorine demand of a water sample was found to be 0.2 mg/l. The amount of bleaching powder containing 30% available chlorine to be added to treat one litre of such a water sample is
(A) 0.67 mg (B) 0.06 mg (C) 1.33 mg (D) 0.14 mg
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